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playing over 200k hands, I haven't hit the jackpot once.I came across an article where

the guy claims that 🍐 you can hit a 1 in 500 shot in poker using T9s-56s. Is that

true?According to my knowledge and what 🍐 is stated on Wikipedia, it would be 0.0279%The

formula to calculate the jackpot value is: jackpot value = jackpot payout 🍐 x probability

of hitting the jackpot in one hand.?? that 0.15bb-0.20bb~~ to extra evTo calculate the